04-24-2021, 01:13 AM
(04-23-2021, 03:43 PM)Cormanus_imp Wrote: Teacher, I think I need a case study to understand your argument, please.
I'm not a finance guy, but I'll give it a try. Let's say you borrow $10k at 3% for 5 years with monthly payments:
![[Image: fb9dd3b658377b8d1178ce18ff7b2789.png]](https://cb1100forum.net/forum/uploads/imp/202104/fb9dd3b658377b8d1178ce18ff7b2789.png)
If the real rate of inflation is 0%, then the lender makes a gross profit of $781.21 on the transaction. If the real rate of inflation is 3%, the lender breaks even, because the value of the $781.21 in interest evaporates at the end of the 5-year period because the currency has been losing value at the rate of 3% per year.
Now, if the real rate of inflation is 6%, the break-even payment plan for the lender would look like this:
![[Image: 6c679fc5b99163aabafd1b48d028c3cf.png]](https://cb1100forum.net/forum/uploads/imp/202104/6c679fc5b99163aabafd1b48d028c3cf.png)
But, if the lender was unwise enough (or artificially propped up enough with fiat currency) to lend you the money at 3% while inflation moves ahead at 6%, the lender actually loses roughly the difference: $1599.68 - $781.21 = $818.47. To get precise figures, you'd need to do a net present value calculation on the 60 payments for the future cash flows. If you run the 3% cash flow with a 6% discount rate, you see the negative impact on net present value.
